Would this be considered correct grammer?
Okay, so much of us (should) know what a comma splice is. It's when you connect two sentences with a comma, but without the word, but, yet, or, ect.
What I want to know is, would this sentence for example be correct grammer?
"A train makes a loud sound, yet without proper safety-wear you could seriously hurt yourself when mixing two chemicals."
Basically, two sentences joined together with a comma and conjunction, but the two sentences don't relate to each other at all.
Thanks.
EDIT: I would normally select a best answer, although all of your answers are very good. Since I can't pick multiple Best Answers, I'm not going to try and figure out which is best, as they are all very good.






























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Also, I would go with Knex_Lover and say you should add a semicolon.
Speallin iz moar mie fortay. =P
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Formal_grammar)
"A formal grammar (sometimes simply called a grammar) is a set of rules of a specific kind, for forming strings in a formal language. The rules describe how to form strings from the language's alphabet that are valid according to the language's syntax. A grammar does not describe the meaning of the strings or what can be done with them in whatever context —only their form."
If you agree with this definition, then your question is answered. It is good grammar. But you may not agree with the definition, so the argument would become not about your sentence, but what the word "grammar" means.
As for the word "yet," it implies that the two halves of the sentence belong to the same class of events:
(http://www.yourdictionary.com/yet)
conjunction: but; regardless of this
"she seems happy, yet she is troubled"
Substituting "regardless of this" for "but" in your sentence gives "A train makes a loud sound, regardless of this without proper safety-wear you could seriously hurt yourself when mixing two chemicals." This is a clear non-sequatur, as Orksecurity says.
Thank you for your interesting and provocative question.
And you're welcome.
idk. The use of yet as a conjunction implies (grammatically) the joining of two contrasting ideas. Since there is no contrast (the two topics have no correlation to each other, rather than a contrasting correlation), it seems an unambiguous grammatical violation.
That is...
The salient portion of the wiki "grammar" definition is:
"The rules describe how to form strings from the language's alphabet that are valid according to the language's syntax."
Because the premise (statement) and modifier (unrelated statement) that form the string are uncorrelated,
<Statement>, yet <Contrasting statement(s)>
(the required syntax for use of "yet" conjunction)
is not executed in the original example, since there is no actual contrasting statement, and therefore it violates the language's syntax and subsequently, by definition, the grammar.
One *could liken it to the mathematical
Y = str(5) + num(6),
s.t. "+" is either conjunctive (str) or summing (num) operator
Were they both strings or both numbers, the statement would be fine, but they're not, so the operation fails.
I notice you quoted "The rules describe how to form strings from the language's alphabet that are valid according to the language's syntax" but not, "A grammar does not describe the meaning of the strings or what can be done with them in whatever context —only their form." Doesn't this weaken your argument?
(This "A grammar" thing kinda annoys me though...seems grammatically incorrect" ;-) I get it, but I don't like it. Sounds klutzy.
Further, I'm not so sure the "whatever context" really means that nonsequatur (sp) constructions are allowed, but more that the basic concept of a grammar and its...erm...corollaries... are valid no matter whether the example is a mathematical equation, a common sentence, a statement of Logic (the philosophy) or any other construct that falls within "grammar's" pervue (sp).
I highly doubt that my argument is 100% solid, so someone could probably attack it from a dozen different angles (use of premise being only one of a few I can see right off...the math example is a bit sketchy). But it was my easiest way to put a "fix" on what I'd otherwise chock up to a "feeling of flow"...like that judge who said something along the lines of
"Well, I can't define porn, but I know it when I see it"
Rock Soldier, who asked the question, must be thoroughly fed up by now.
lolz wrt Rock Soldier. he's opened a
cwormsn
awormsa
n-c-a-n-n
Having said that, it's not always necessary to follow the "law" to the tee, and sometimes (imo) it's less effective to do so.
For instance, any use of the second person is frowned on in some circles, (Hey, I don't do that! why are you accusing ME of doing that?!!), the use of "we" is considered to be "wrong" by some, because it attempts to establish a sense of community that can't be counted on, not using spaces between paragraphs, etc... Personally, I find those rules can be a bit uptight, since their use sometimes "feels" more friendly than saying everything in the "proper" way....
( I just read a blog post the other day, wrt writing a programming help page, in which the author stated that his grammar coach abhorred the use of "we" for the reason cited above...silly, imo..I like it when a teacher uses "we")
"Join the American Nonsequatur Society. We don't make much sense, but we like pizza."
"My dog is black and white, but the blueberry pie is much too sweet."
You cannot join just any two sentences together with a comma and a conjunction and then say the sentence is grammatically correct.
And, why deliberately misspell a word? It only makes you look silly when you then explain you know it is wrong.
Thanks. That all I wanted to know.
And, why deliberately misspell a word? It only makes you look silly when you then explain you know it is wrong.
I don't think so. And if so, I could care less.
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